Instructions:
You know the drill: YOU MUST USE A #2 PENCIL ON YOUR ANSWER SHEET.
PRINT YOUR
NAME, STUDENT NUMBER, AND FILL IN THE APPROPRIATE CIRCLES. Read each
question
carefully before answering. Work at a steady pace, and you should have
ample
time to finish. YOU MUST SHOW YOUR STUDENT ID WHEN DEPOSITING YOUR
ANSWER
SHEET (in color coded pile) BEFORE LEAVING THE ROOM. You may keep the
questions
and pick up an answer sheet (color coded for your particular set of
questions).
_____________________________________________
1. Which of the following organisms does not reproduce cells by
mitosis and cytokinesis?
a. cow
b. bacterium
c. mushroom
d. cockroach
e. banana tree
2. If there are 12 chromosomes in an animal cell in G1 stage
of the
cell cycle, what is the diploid number of chromosomes
for this
organism?
a. 6
b. 12
c. 24
d. 36
e. 48
3. How do the daughter cells at the end of mitosis and cytokinesis
compare with their parent cell when it was in G1
of the cell cycle?
a. The daughter cells have half the amount of cytoplasm
and half the
amount of DNA.
b. The daughter cells have half the number of chromosomes
and half
the amount of DNA.
c. The daughter cells have the same number of chromosomes
and half
the amount of DNA.
d. The daughter cells have the same number of chromosomes
and the
same amount of DNA.
e. The daughter cells may have new combinations
of genes due to
crossing over.
4. Measurements of the amount of DNA per nucleus were taken on
a large
number of cells from a growing fungus. The measured
DNA levels
ranged from 3 to 6 picograms per nucleus. One nucleus
had 5
picograms of DNA. What stage of the cell cycle was
this nucleus in?
a. G0
b. G1
c. S
d. G2
e. M
5. Proteins that are involved in the regulation of the cell cycle,
and
that show fluctuations in concentration during the
cell cycle, are
called
a. ATPases.
b. kinetochores.
c. centrioles.
d. proton pumps.
e. cyclins.
6. A cell with 20 chromosomes (diploid number) goes through the
cell
cycle. The number of chromosomes after doubling
the DNA in the S
phase is
a. 20.
b. 40.
c. 10.
d. called the S number of chromosomes.
e. called haploid.
7. If the liver cells of an animal have 24 chromosomes, the sperm
cells
would have how many chromosomes?
a. 12
b. 24
c. 48
d. twice the diploid number
e. half the haploid number
8. What is a karyotype?
a. the phenotype of an individual
b. the genotype of an individual
c. a unique combination of chromosomes found in
a gamete
d. the kind of nucleus a cell has
e. a method of organizing the homologous chromosomes
of a cell in
relation to their number, size,
and type
---------------------------------------
Use the key shown below to answer the following
question(s). Each
answer may be used once, more than once, or not
at all.
1. The statement is
true for mitosis only.
2. The statement is
true for meiosis I only.
3. The statement is
true for meiosis II only.
4. The statement is
true for mitosis and meiosis I.
5. The statement is
true for mitosis and meiosis II.
9. Homologous chromosomes synapse and crossing over occurs.
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
e. 5
10. Centromeres uncouple and chromatids are separated from each
other.
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
e. 5
---------------------------------------
Refer to the life cycles illustrated in Figure 12.2
(not available)
11. Which of the life cycles is typical for animals?
a. I only
b. II only
c. III only
d. I and II
e. I and III
12. Which of the life cycles is typical for plants and some algae?
a. I only
b. II only
c. III only
d. I and II
e. I and III
13. A couple who are both carriers for the gene for cystic fibrosis
have
two children who have cystic fibrosis. What is the
probability that
their next child will have cystic fibrosis?
a. 0%
b. 25%
c. 50%
d. 75%
e. 100%
14. A couple who are both carriers for the gene for cystic fibrosis
have
two children who have cystic fibrosis. What is the
probability that
their next child will be phenotypically normal?
a. 0%
b. 25%
c. 50%
d. 75%
e. 100%
15. What is a genetic cross between an individual of unknown genotype
and a homozygous recessive?
a. a self-cross
b. a testcross
c. a hybrid cross
d. an F1 cross
e. a dihybrid cross
16. Which of the following is an example of polygenic inheritance?
a. pink flowers in snapdragons
b. the ABO blood groups in humans
c. sex-linkage in humans
d. white and purple color in sweet peas
e. skin pigmentation in humans
17. A 9:3:3:1 phenotypic ratio is characteristic of the
a. F1 generation of a monohybrid cross.
b. F2 generation of a monohybrid cross.
c. F1 generation of a dihybrid cross.
d. F2 generation of a dihybrid cross.
e. F2 generation of a trihybrid cross.
18. In a cross AaBbCc x AaBbCc, what is the probability of producing
the
genotype AABBCC?
a. 1/4
b. 1/8
c. 1/16
d. 1/32
e. 1/64
19. The frequency of crossing over between any two linked genes is
a. more likely if they are recessive.
b. difficult to predict.
c. determined by their relative dominance.
d. the same as if they were not linked.
e. proportional to the distance between them.
20. A recessive allele on the X chromosome is responsible for red-green
color blindness in humans. A normal vision woman
whose father is
color-blind marries a color-blind male. What is
the probability that
this couple's son will be color-blind?
a. 0%
b. 25%
c. 50%
d. 75%
e. 100%
21. A man who carries an X-linked allele will pass it on to
a. all of his daughters.
b. half of his daughters.
c. all of his sons.
d. half of his sons.
e. all of his children.
---------------------------------------
The pedigree chart below (Figure 14.1) indicates
the inheritance of
color blindness (sex-linked). Answer the following
question(s) using
the key under the Figure. (not available)
22. In the pedigree in Figure 14.1 (not available), what is the
probability that
individual III-1 is heterozygous?
a. 0.25
b. 0.33
c. 0.50
d. 0.66
e. 0.75
23. In the pedigree in Figure 14.1, what is the probability that
individual III-3 is homozygous?
a. 0
b. 0.25
c. 0.5
d. 0.75
e. 1.0
24. If a pair of homologous chromosomes fails to separate during
anaphase of meiosis I, what will be the chromosomes
number (n) of
the four resulting gametes?
a. n+1; n+1; n-1; n-1
b. n+1; n-1; n; n
c. n+1; n-1; n-1; n-1
d. n+1; n+1; n; n
e. n-1; n-1; n; n
---------------------------------------
Refer to Figure 14.3 to answer the following question(s).
(not available)
25. In a series of mapping experiments, the recombination frequency
for
four different linked genes of Drosophila were determined
as shown
above. What is the order of these genes on a chromosome
map?
a. rb-cn-vg-b
b. vg-b-rb-cn
c. cn-rb-b-vg
d. b-rb-cn-vg
e. vg-cn-b-rb
26. The problem of replicating the lagging strand��that is, adding bases
in the 3'--> 5' direction��is solved by DNA through
the use of
a. base-pairing.
b. replication forks.
c. the unwinding enzyme, helicase.
d. Okazaki fragments.
e. topoisomerases.
27. What kind of chemical bonds are found between paired bases of the
DNA double helix?
a. hydrogen
b. ionic
c. covalent
d. sulfhydryl
e. phosphate
28. What is the primer that is required to initiate the synthesis of
a
new DNA strand?
a. RNA
b. DNA
c. protein
d. ligase
e. primase
29. Which enzyme catalyzes the elongation of a DNA strand in the 5'-->
3' direction?
a. primase
b. DNA ligase
c. DNA polymerase
d. topoisomerase
e. helicase
30. Which of the following descriptions best fits the class of molecules
known as nucleotides?
a. a nitrogen base and a phosphate group only
b. a nitrogen base and a five-carbon sugar only
c. a nitrogen base, a phosphate group, and a five-carbon
sugar
d. a five-carbon sugar, a phosphate group, and a
purine
e. a pyrimidine, a purine, and a six-carbon sugar
31. Suppose one were provided with an actively dividing culture of E.
coli bacteria to which radioactive thymine had been
added. What
would happen if a cell replicated once in the presence
of this
radioactive base?
a. One of the daughter cells, but not the other,
would have
radioactive DNA.
b. Neither of the two daughter cells would be radioactive.
c. All four bases of the DNA would be radioactive.
d. Radioactive thymine would pair with nonradioactive
guanine.
e. DNA in both daughter cells would be radioactive.
32. In an analysis of the nucleotide composition of DNA to see which
bases are equivalent in concentration, which of
the following would
be true?
1. A = C
2. A = G and C = T
3. A + C = G + T
4. A + T = G + C
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
e. Both 2 and 3 are true.
33. What is the relationship among DNA, a gene, and a chromosome?
a. A chromosome contains hundreds of genes which
are composed of
protein.
b. A chromosome contains hundreds of genes which
are composed of
DNA.
c. A gene contains hundreds of chromosomes which
are composed of
protein.
d. A gene is composed of DNA, but there is no relationship
to a
chromosome.
e. A gene contains hundreds of chromosomes which
are composed of
DNA.
34. All of the following are directly involved in translation EXCEPT
a. mRNA.
b. tRNA.
c. ribosomes.
d. DNA.
e. amino acid-activating enzymes.
35. RNA differs from DNA in that RNA
1. contains ribose
as its sugar.
2. is found only in
cytoplasm.
3. contains uracil
instead of thymine.
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 1 and 3 are correct.
e. 1, 2, and 3 are correct.
36. From the following list, which is the first event in translation
in
eukaryotes?
1. elongation of the
polypeptide
2. base pairing of
activated methionine-tRNA to AUG of the
messenger
3. binding of the
larger ribosomal subunit to smaller ribosome
subunits
4. covalent bonding
between the first two amino acids
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
e. Both 2 and 4 occur simultaneously.
37. As a ribosome translocates along an mRNA molecule by one codon,
which of the following occurs?
1. The transfer RNA
that was in the A site moves into
the P site.
2. The tRNA that was
in the P site moves into the A site.
3. The tRNA that was
in the P site departs from the ribosome.
4. The tRNA that was
in the A site departs from the ribosome.
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
e. Both 1 and 3 are correct.
38. Which point mutation would be most likely to have a catastrophic
effect on the functioning of a protein?
a. a base substitution
b. a base deletion near the start of the coding
sequence
c. a base deletion near the end of the coding sequence,
but not in
the terminator codon
d. deletion of three bases near the start of the
coding sequence,
but not in the initiator codon
e. a base insertion near the end of the coding sequence,
but not in
the terminator codon
---------------------------------------
Refer to Figure 16.1 to answer the following question(s).
(not available)
39. What amino acid sequence will be generated, based on the following
mRNA codon sequence? 5' AUG-UCU-UCG-UUA-UCC-UUG
a. met-arg-glu-arg-glu-agr
b. met-glu-arg-arg-gln-leu
c. met-ser-leu-ser-leu-ser
d. met-ser-ser-leu-ser-leu
e. met-leu-phe-arg-glu-glu
40. Suppose the following DNA sequence was mutated from
AGAGAGAGAGAGAGAGAGA to AGAAGAGAGATCGAGAGA. What
amino acid sequence
will be generated based on this mutated DNA?
a. arg-glu-arg-glu-agr-glu
b. glu-arg-glu-leu-leu-leu
c. ser-leu-ser-leu-ser-leu
d. ser-ser-leu
e. leu-phe-arg-glu-glu-glu
---------------------------------------
Each of the following is a modification of the sentence
THECATATETHERAT.
1. THERATATETHECAT
2. THETACATETHERAT
3. THECATARETHERAT
4. THECATATTHERAT
5. CATATETHERAT
41. Which of the above is analogous to a frameshift mutation?
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
e. 5
42. Which of the above is analogous to a single substitution mutation?
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
e. 5
43. The function of reverse transcriptase in retroviruses is to
a. hydrolyze the host cell's DNA.
b. use viral RNA as a template for DNA synthesis.
c. convert host cell RNA into viral DNA.
d. translate viral RNA into proteins.
e. use viral RNA as a template for making complementary
RNA strands.
44. Bacteriophages that have become integrated into the host cell
chromosome are called
a. intemperate bacteriophages.
b. transposons.
c. prophages.
d. T-even bacteriophages.
e. plasmids.
---------------------------------------
Answer the question(s) by matching the following
terms with the
appropriate phrase or description below. Each term
can be used once,
more than once, or not at all.
1. operon
2. operator
3. promoter
4. repressor
5. corepressor
45. A protein that is produced by a regulatory gene.
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
e. 5
46. The binding of an active repressor molecule at this site prevents
the binding of RNA polymerase.
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
e. 5
47. You would expect the lactose operon to be transcribed when
1. there is more glucose
in the cell than lactose.
2. there is more lactose
in the cell than glucose.
3. there is lactose
but no glucose in the cell.
4. the cyclic AMP
levels are high within the cell.
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
e. Both 3 and 4 are correct.
---------------------------------------
Use the choices shown below to answer the following
question(s).
The choices may be used once, more than once, or
not at all.
1. transduction
2. transposition
3. translation
4. transformation
5. conjugation
48. DNA is transferred from one bacterium to another by a virus.
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
e. 5
49. DNA from one strain of bacteria is assimilated by another strain.
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
e. 5
50. Which of the following does NOT consist of a sequence of bases?
a. repressor
b. structural gene
c. promoter
d. regulator gene
e. operator